A question about hate

by clayboy on November 16, 2009 · 2 comments

in Miscellany

After some of the comments here, I have to ask:

Why is it that so many of us are always ready to explain “hate” in the Bible as hyperbole or “semitic idiom”, but when we encounter it in a blog post, assume it must be taken in its most literal, po-faced and unpleasant sense?

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{ 2 comments }

James McGrath November 16, 2009 at 12:35

I hate it when people do that…

Tim Chesterton November 16, 2009 at 16:53

PErhaps because (1) it is a Semetic idiom, but not a modern English one, and (2) hate does so much damage in the Christian Church today (let alone the world at large). I think many Christians genuinely do hate fellow-Christians with whom they disagree, and that’s tragic.

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